@A Former User said in What level of PR do different systems get?:

I assume nothing about the distribution. I speak of the average s/v, over all possible numbers of quotas in an interval (as defined above).

The bias that I speak of is differing s/v averages over low & high intervals.

Nothing whatsoever to do with a distribution.

In this post on Election Methods, you wrote:

Here is what I mean by "bias". I claim that my meaning for bias is consistent with the usual understood meaning for bias::

For any two consecutive integers N and N+1, the interval between those two integers is "Interval N"

**If it is equally likely to find a party with its final quotient anywhere in interval N**, then determine the expected s/v for parties in interval N.

Compare that expected s/v for some small value of N, with the expected value of s/v for some large value of N.

If the latter expected s/v is greater than the former, when using a certain seat allocation method, then that allocation method is large-biased.

If the opposite is true, then the method is small-biased.

I have bolded and italicised part of your quote. It is an assumption about the distribution. You might think it's a fair assumption. But it is an assumption, something you've been denying. So I'm glad that's clarified.

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And while that might seem unrealistic, we can see the case of very small parties that never get enough votes to win a seat. A particular party might be due about 0.1 seats at every election but never win one under a particular method. Is that bias?

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Sure, but it’s not the kind that has always been meant when speaking of bias. Fractional-quota small parties were traditionally never really wanted in PR countries.

It seems we're changing the subject here. This is about a method being objectively unbiased. We are not talking about practicalities at all and what is wanted. So do you admit to bias in the "Bias-Free" method then?

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(Michael's method involves a 0^0 in the 0 to 1 seat range, so appears to break, so I'm not sure how it is supposed to handle this case.)

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No, it still works, though the usual formula doesn’t work. There’s a way to do the integral from that 0^0 point. It’s an exception that has to be separately integrated as a separate problem.

The answer to that problem is a rounding point equal to 1/e.

To clarify then, those parties consistently getting fewer votes than 1/e of a quota of votes are the subject of systematic bias, under the "Bias-Free" method.

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(after all Sainte-Laguë simply returns the most proportional result)…

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…according to the difference measure of s/v-variation. …which doesn’t make as much sense as ratio. But of course your preference is entirely your business. …but if you’re going to say that Professor Huntington was wrong, you’ll need more than an assertion. You’ll need to say where you think he was wrong. Help that mathematics professor out by explaining where he made his error.

…& as I‘be explained to you many times, if by “most proportional” you mean “ having least maximum variation in s/v, that’s an entirely different matter from bias, whose meaning I’ve already told you several times.

Well, I've discussed Huntington's paper in the previous post, so that's sorted now. And you agree that Sainte-Laguë magically gives less bias than Huntington-Hill despite being worse. I also explained in a previous post why minimising the variance of s/v measured arithmetically is the best measure. s/v adds to a set number (s in fact). It is, in essence, an arithmetic sample, not a geometric one. Using geometric variance breaks if a party has zero seats. If you had a sample that multiplied to a set number, then use the geometric variance. It would make most sense. (Edit - is you were looking at v/s instead of s/v it would make sense to use the harmonic mean and variance.)

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The only way to get rid of bias under any assumptions…

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BF has no bias.

As pointed out above, it only has no bias under certain assumptions. I could devise a voting distribution of voting behaviour (that could exist in a possible world) where it has either small or large party bias. The only way to eliminate any possibility of this would be to use a non-deterministic method. However, "Bias-Free" does have a small-party bias relative to Sainte-Laguë, which by the most sensible measure gives the most proportional result. This is itself a form of bias. But anyway, I'm repeating myself. I think we're probably done because you're not going to reply. But it's a shame. I think "Bias-Free" probably has some interesting theoretical properties, and it would be interesting to see them explained. But you asserted too much about it, and were unable to discuss it in a reasonable manner.

Well, I wanted to check this forum out, & there was talk about doing a lot of polling, which I consider very useful to demonstrate how the methods work.

But the amount of participation in the recent poll wasn’t very promising.

Because as I pointed out in one of the threads about it, it wasn't run very well.