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    election by jury (www.electionbyjury.com/manifesto)

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      Toby Pereira @clay last edited by

      To be clear, I wasn't arguing against random sampling, just thinking through why someone might be concerned about it.

      @clay said in election by jury (www.electionbyjury.com/manifesto):

      on "ought": you're arguing a massive straw man. no one ever said anything remotely close to "utilitarianism defines ought". i am simply stating the obvious fact that when people say "ought", they're just expressing a personal opinion as if it were an obective fact.

      OK, what you did say was:

      @clay said in election by jury (www.electionbyjury.com/manifesto):

      "ought" means "I would subjectively prefer that". this is ethics 101.

      And I would say that this is simply not the case. To expand on my previous point, someone might say "I suppose I ought to try and save those people drowning in the sea, but I don't really care about other people, so I'll just carry on eating my ice-cream."

      So in this case it's not their subjective preference, not even a conflicting one. They're working under the assumption that there is a moral framework that exists outside their own subjective preferences (and choosing to ignore it). Whether they're right or not is beside the point when it comes to what they mean by "ought".

      Of course, if we zoom out further, with no objective value judgements, we cannot actually say that election by jury is objectively the best system, or better than other specific systems. We can only say that it is better under certain assumptions that you have to smuggle in. For example, you mentioned the veil of ignorance earlier, but in reality we don't have a veil of ignorance. So for someone already in a comfortable position in society, they can happily not support it without being "illogical".

      this is all so drastically "ethics 101" that i'm a bit at a loss for how helpful i can be here.

      If you took a philosophical ethics course, you might be surprised at what is included. I can imagine you screaming and shouting at the lecturer.

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        clay last edited by

        @toby-pereira

        And I would say that this is simply not the case.

        and i just explained why you're wrong.

        toby said:

        To expand on my previous point, someone might say "I suppose I ought to try and save those people drowning in the sea, but I don't really care about other people, so I'll just carry on eating my ice-cream."
        So in this case it's not their subjective preference, not even a conflicting one.

        that would be using "ought" as in society would prefer i do it. thus they might judge me for not doing it" or something along those lines. you're not making a sophisticated argument.

        If you took a philosophical ethics course, you might be surprised at what is included.

        philosophers whose works i've read and who were cited in my ethics treatise:

        Derek Parfit — All Souls College, Oxford; Reasons and Persons (1984) and On What Matters (2011). The dominant moral philosopher of the late 20th century; source of the repugnant conclusion and the mere addition paradox, and of the reductionist view of personal identity that underwrites much of how veil arguments handle "who you might be."

        John Rawls — Harvard, arguably the most influential political philosopher of the 20th century; A Theory of Justice (1971) introduced the veil of ignorance and the maximin/difference principle you criticize.

        John Harsanyi — economist rather than philosopher, Berkeley, Nobel laureate 1994 for game theory; his 1953/1955 papers gave the expected-utility version of the veil argument and are the foundational text of utilitarian contractualism.

        T.M. Scanlon — Harvard, What We Owe to Each Other (1998); the leading contemporary contractualist and the source of the "could not reasonably reject" standard.

        David Hume — A Treatise of Human Nature (1739); the is–ought passage in Book III is the origin of the whole meta-ethical problem.

        J.L. Mackie — Oxford (University College), Ethics: Inventing Right and Wrong (1977); the canonical statement of moral error theory and the argument from queerness.

        Richard Joyce — Victoria University of Wellington, The Myth of Morality (2001) and The Evolution of Morality (2006); the main figure in evolutionary debunking arguments and moral fictionalism.

        Peter Singer — Princeton/Melbourne, Animal Liberation (1975) and Practical Ethics; the best-known living utilitarian.

        Sam Harris — PhD in neuroscience, BA in philosophy from Stanford; not an academic philosopher. The Moral Landscape (2010) argues science can determine values.

        Alex O'Connor — degree in philosophy and theology from Oxford; a public commentator, not an academic. Cited for the emotivist "boo, murder" line, which traces back to A.J. Ayer and C.L. Stevenson.

        Non-philosophers cited on empirical grounds:

        Richard Dawkins — evolutionary biologist, Oxford, The Selfish Gene (1976); gene-level selection, no standing in ethics as such.

        Jean-Baptiste André and Nicolas Baumard — evolutionary/cognitive scientists at ENS and Institut Jean Nicod; their Nash-bargaining model of fairness intuitions is the relevant work, and Baumard's The Origins of Fairness (2016) is the book-length version.

        Plato — the euthyphro dilemma is from the Euthyphro, though you invoke it without naming him.

        i did not yell at any of my philosophy professors in college in 1998 and 1999, but i did have some good arguments with them.

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          Toby Pereira @clay last edited by

          @clay said in election by jury (www.electionbyjury.com/manifesto):

          @toby-pereira

          And I would say that this is simply not the case.

          and i just explained why you're wrong.

          Well no.

          toby said:

          To expand on my previous point, someone might say "I suppose I ought to try and save those people drowning in the sea, but I don't really care about other people, so I'll just carry on eating my ice-cream."
          So in this case it's not their subjective preference, not even a conflicting one.

          that would be using "ought" as in society would prefer i do it. thus they might judge me for not doing it" or something along those lines. you're not making a sophisticated argument.

          It's difficult to make a particularly sophisticated argument about the definition of a word. You're just saying that it must mean this. You are wrong. Maybe the person is using the word thinking that there is an objective ethical system. Lots of people think that. It doesn't matter if they are right or wrong. That is what you seem to be missing. Check with everyone in the world who has ever used the word and make sure they agree with you about how they are using the word and get back to me.

          If you took a philosophical ethics course, you might be surprised at what is included.

          philosophers whose works i've read and who were cited in my ethics treatise:

          Derek Parfit — All Souls College, Oxford; Reasons and Persons (1984) and On What Matters (2011). The dominant moral philosopher of the late 20th century; source of the repugnant conclusion and the mere addition paradox, and of the reductionist view of personal identity that underwrites much of how veil arguments handle "who you might be."

          John Rawls — Harvard, arguably the most influential political philosopher of the 20th century; A Theory of Justice (1971) introduced the veil of ignorance and the maximin/difference principle you criticize.

          John Harsanyi — economist rather than philosopher, Berkeley, Nobel laureate 1994 for game theory; his 1953/1955 papers gave the expected-utility version of the veil argument and are the foundational text of utilitarian contractualism.

          T.M. Scanlon — Harvard, What We Owe to Each Other (1998); the leading contemporary contractualist and the source of the "could not reasonably reject" standard.

          David Hume — A Treatise of Human Nature (1739); the is–ought passage in Book III is the origin of the whole meta-ethical problem.

          J.L. Mackie — Oxford (University College), Ethics: Inventing Right and Wrong (1977); the canonical statement of moral error theory and the argument from queerness.

          Richard Joyce — Victoria University of Wellington, The Myth of Morality (2001) and The Evolution of Morality (2006); the main figure in evolutionary debunking arguments and moral fictionalism.

          Peter Singer — Princeton/Melbourne, Animal Liberation (1975) and Practical Ethics; the best-known living utilitarian.

          Sam Harris — PhD in neuroscience, BA in philosophy from Stanford; not an academic philosopher. The Moral Landscape (2010) argues science can determine values.

          Alex O'Connor — degree in philosophy and theology from Oxford; a public commentator, not an academic. Cited for the emotivist "boo, murder" line, which traces back to A.J. Ayer and C.L. Stevenson.

          Non-philosophers cited on empirical grounds:

          Richard Dawkins — evolutionary biologist, Oxford, The Selfish Gene (1976); gene-level selection, no standing in ethics as such.

          Jean-Baptiste André and Nicolas Baumard — evolutionary/cognitive scientists at ENS and Institut Jean Nicod; their Nash-bargaining model of fairness intuitions is the relevant work, and Baumard's The Origins of Fairness (2016) is the book-length version.

          Plato — the euthyphro dilemma is from the Euthyphro, though you invoke it without naming him.

          i did not yell at any of my philosophy professors in college in 1998 and 1999, but i did have some good arguments with them.

          That's good, but your posts on here suggest to me that you expect the first lecture on an ethics course to begin: "Here are some ethical systems that people have come up with over the years. They are rubbish. Now here's utilitarianism..."

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            clay @Toby Pereira last edited by

            @toby-pereira said in election by jury (www.electionbyjury.com/manifesto):

            It's difficult to make a particularly sophisticated argument about the definition of a word. You're just saying that it must mean this. You are wrong.

            you have zero evidence of that. as i've pointed out, you cannot show me any actual objective physical law of nature that the word "ought" could possibly refer to. it's just expressing a vibe.

            this is so ethics 101 i don't know what else to say. maybe watch an accomplished philosopher explain.
            Youtube Video

            Maybe the person is using the word thinking that there is an objective ethical system.

            that's exactly what i said!! they're expressing an opinion/vibe/emotion that they possibly (but wrongly) think is objective.

            they, like you, cannot find any objective basis for this however.

            Lots of people think that. It doesn't matter if they are right or wrong. That is what you seem to be missing.

            LOL, that they are wrong is my whole point. so yes, it does matter.

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              cfrank @clay last edited by cfrank

              @clay, can you show me any actual objective physical law of nature that the word ‘preference’ could possibly refer to?

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                clay @cfrank last edited by

                @cfrank said in election by jury (www.electionbyjury.com/manifesto):

                @clay, can you show me any actual objective physical law of nature that the word ‘preference’ could possibly refer to?

                i already said utilities are subjective, by definition.

                no one is claiming obama is objectively good. we are saying people have subject preferences for different outcomes.

                and you can elicit those via revealed preference. e.g. would you take a guarantee of a million dollars, or a coin flip for 3 million.

                dear. god. this is not complicated.

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                  cfrank @clay last edited by cfrank

                  @clay that does not answer the question. You rejected “ought” because it does not refer to an objective physical law of nature. “Preference” does not refer to one either. Saying that preferences are subjective and can be inferred from behavior simply replaces your original criterion with behavioral elicitation.

                  Granting that preferences are descriptively real, it still does not follow that satisfying or aggregating them is good. That is the normative premise you keep declining to examine.

                  You appear to accept that a preference can be a legitimate higher-order description of some material configuration. What you have not explained is why an “ought” proposition cannot likewise describe a higher-order property of a broader configuration involving agents, actions, alternatives, and consequences.

                  Anyway, this is beyond the scope of this forum.

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                    clay @cfrank last edited by

                    @cfrank said in election by jury (www.electionbyjury.com/manifesto):

                    that does not answer the question. You rejected “ought” because it does not refer to an objective physical law of nature. “Preference” does not refer to one either.

                    okay, deep breath...

                    i did not "reject" ought. i rejected the idea that it is anything other than subjective preference.

                    of course we already know that "preference" refers to "subjective preference" so there's nothing to argue about there.

                    Granting that preferences are descriptively real, it still does not follow that satisfying or aggregating them is good.

                    it is good by definition. "satisfying my preference" is what "good" means.

                    That is the normative premise you keep declining to examine.

                    there's no such thing as "normativity". there's just subjective preference.

                    it's almost as if i thoroughly explained this umpteen times and am having to repeat myself.

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                      cfrank @clay last edited by cfrank

                      @clay, well then, at least we can be highly confident that you subjectively prefer aggregate utility maximization—and, on your account, that neither you nor anyone else has any substantive, non-preference-based reason to adopt that position.

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                        clay @cfrank last edited by

                        @cfrank said in election by jury (www.electionbyjury.com/manifesto):

                        @clay, well then, at least we can be highly confident that you subjectively prefer aggregate utility maximization—and, on your account, that neither you nor anyone else has any substantive, non-preference-based reason to adopt that position.

                        this is nonsensical. aggregate utility maximization objectively gives everyone more of whatever it is they subjectively prefer. you cannot "prefer" something other than aggregate utility maximization as that would be like saying "i prefer what i don't prefer."

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                          cfrank @clay last edited by cfrank

                          @clay “aggregate utility maximization objectively gives everyone more of whatever it is they subjectively prefer.”

                          Unless there is a known feasible option that maximizes every individual’s utility simultaneously, with no interpersonal tradeoffs, that is simply false. Aggregate utility maximization maximizes the sum or expected sum of utilities, not each person’s utility.

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                            Toby Pereira @clay last edited by Toby Pereira

                            @clay I think you totally missed the point of what I was saying. The thing I was disputing was:

                            @clay said in election by jury (www.electionbyjury.com/manifesto):

                            "ought" means "I would subjectively prefer that". this is ethics 101.

                            Ethics 101 does not determine what a word means. Words are used in English by English-speaking people in many ways, some informal, some formal and with varying degrees of vagueness etc. It does not matter if someone's meaning for a word is at bottom incoherent or that the thing they mean doesn't exist in real life. The word doesn't then not mean what they were using it to mean. Experts in ethics do not have ownership of the word "ought". So:

                            as i've pointed out, you cannot show me any actual objective physical law of nature that the word "ought" could possibly refer to. it's just expressing a vibe.

                            No, and I wasn't trying to. You just missed what I was saying. I'll repeat the example, but with a bit of added commentary for clarity.

                            Someone might say, "I suppose I ought to try and save those people drowning in the sea, but I don't really care about other people, so I'll just carry on eating my ice-cream."

                            I initially said this doesn't fit your definition of "ought" above because he's not expressing a subjective preference. You countered by saying:

                            that would be using "ought" as in society would prefer i do it. thus they might judge me for not doing it" or something along those lines.

                            (So therefore still a subjective preference.) But I then said actually, he could be referring, not to anyone's subjective preference, but to a moral framework that exists outside of his (or anyone else's) subjective preferences.

                            So therefore his use of the word "ought" does not refer to subjective preferences. It refers to this objective framework that he believes exists. Even if it doesn't exist. And however you cut it, it's still a long way from:

                            "ought" means "I would subjectively prefer that". this is ethics 101.

                            But I'm not sure how else to get the point across. OK, someone believes in ghosts. A ghost (by some definition) is the soul of a dead person that still in some manner inhabits our physical realm.

                            It doesn't matter if ghosts are real - this is what it means to be a ghost under this definition. Someone might say:

                            "A ghost is just an illusion. That's what it means to be a ghost."

                            It might be the case that all the ghosts that people have claimed to have seen are all illusions, and indeed that no "magical" ghosts exist, but this does not change the definition of what a ghost is. A definition can be of something that doesn't exist, or is at bottom incoherent.

                            That's all I'm saying. Words mean what people use them to mean. There is no dictionary in the sky that defines a word in a very specific way. And there is certainly nothing that cancels out the definition of a word based on the non-existence or incoherence of a concept.

                            If someone uses the word "ought" to refer to some objective morality, then that is what they are using the word to mean.

                            This is a silly argument anyway, and far removed from election by jury!

                            Edit - you do this routine of incredulity when you think people aren't getting what you're saying, but I could do the same on you here. Your lack of comprehension of what I am saying is staggering.

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                              clay @cfrank last edited by

                              @cfrank said in election by jury (www.electionbyjury.com/manifesto):

                              @clay “aggregate utility maximization objectively gives everyone more of whatever it is they subjectively prefer.”
                              Unless there is a known feasible option that maximizes every individual’s utility simultaneously, with no interpersonal tradeoffs, that is simply false. Aggregate utility maximization maximizes the sum or expected sum of utilities, not each person’s utility.

                              they are SAME THING, in expectation.

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                                cfrank @clay last edited by cfrank

                                @clay sure, if we all agree to hook ourselves up to the National Brain Swapping Initiative’s Brain-Swapper 2000 every time a new policy decision is made, you’re pretty much on the money.

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                                  clay @Toby Pereira last edited by

                                  @toby-pereira said in election by jury (www.electionbyjury.com/manifesto):

                                  Ethics 101 does not determine what a word means.

                                  i don't care if "ethics" does it, it's still obviously true that it does not "mean" anything. and it technically just communicates "i have a preference for this thing", and possibly also, "i wrongly believe that it's objectively true, because i do not realize it's subjective not objective."

                                  A ghost (by some definition) is the soul of a dead person that still in some manner inhabits our physical realm.
                                  It doesn't matter if ghosts are real - this is what it means to be a ghost under this definition

                                  there you've clearly named a specific concrete concept, whether it's real or not. you can draw a ghost even.

                                  but no such thing exists for the word "ought". it has no actual meaning. it's just expressing a preference.

                                  i beg of you to actually spend a few minutes learning what real philosophers say about this. here's alex o'connor saying essentially this: it's just expressing an emotion. it's not an actual semantically meaningful word.

                                  Youtube Video

                                  this is just super elementary ethics and i cannot believe you're unfamiliar with it even after i've repeatedly pointed it out to you.

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                                    cfrank @clay last edited by cfrank

                                    @clay “real philosophers” say many different things about almost everything. I’ll repeat the main point that you did not address: What you have not explained is why an “ought” proposition cannot likewise describe a higher-order property of a broader configuration involving agents, actions, alternatives, and consequences.

                                    Youtube Video

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                                      clay @cfrank last edited by clay

                                      @cfrank said in election by jury (www.electionbyjury.com/manifesto):

                                      @clay “real philosophers” say many different things about almost everything. I’ll repeat the main point that you did not address: What you have not explained is why an “ought” proposition cannot likewise describe a higher-order property of a broader configuration involving agents, actions, alternatives, and consequences.

                                      this is word salad. give me a specific concrete definition of "ought".

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                                        cfrank @clay last edited by

                                        @clay Kant does a fair job of that, in direct contest with utilitarian ethics, through his categorical imperative, as one example. If you engaged with ethics as deeply as you claim, you would be well aware of that.

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                                          clay @cfrank last edited by

                                          @cfrank said in election by jury (www.electionbyjury.com/manifesto):

                                          @clay Kant does a fair job of that, in direct contest with utilitarian ethics, through his categorical imperative, as one example. If you engaged with ethics as deeply as you claim, you would be well aware of that.

                                          there is no alternative to utilitarian ethics. preference sovereignty principle says you cannot separate "ethics" from "what people would prefer", and preferences are maximized in in terms of expected utility.

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                                            cfrank @clay last edited by

                                            @clay you can plug your ears and say La La La all you like. Kantian ethics is a perfectly legitimate alternative to utilitarian ethics.

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